Psalms 51:7 is a scripture that a lot of people use to argue that we are born in sin and so need to be baptized as children. I’d like to know what this scripture really means to help other people understand better. Thanks.
2 Responses to “Help me understand Psalms 51:7. Are we born in sin?”
Jorge Delgado
2014-04-20 21:49:00
Jesus Christ was Himself baptized in the Jordan river to provide an example for each of us. (Reflections of Christ)
Hi Leonardo. I understand that this chapter is difficult, especially verse 5. The confusion is resolved, though, when we consider the entire Bible rather than a few isolated verses taken out of context.
Jesus, for example, repeatedly taught that children are without sin (Matthew 18:3, Matthew 19:14, Mark 10:13-16, Luke 18:16-17, and Mark 10:16).
The Bible teaches that children don't know the difference between right and wrong and so cannot sin (Deuteronomy 1:39 and Isaiah 7:15-16).
It also teaches that no man is guilty of the sins of another (Ezekiel 18:20, Deuteronomy 24:16, Genesis 18:25, Ezekiel 18:2-4, 20, Ezekiel 18:17-20, 2 Chronicles 25:4, Ezekiel 18:25, 29-30, Ezekiel 18:30, etc.).
Given these other scriptures, it seems evident that King David's statement is more along the lines of general lament (e.g., "why was I ever born") than an actual doctrinal exposition. He explicitly mentions his own sins a few verses before.
There has been some debate over when infant baptism was first practiced. It wasn't explicitly mentioned until ~180 A.D. (possibly Irenaeus' Against Heresies, and/or passages by Origen). The earliest extra-biblical directions for baptism (the Didache, written ~100 A.D.) speak only of adult baptism, since they describe fasting as a prerequisite. Consequently, I think your friend's claim that infant baptism is required is a more recent theological development. I hope this answer helps.
Jesus, for example, repeatedly taught that children are without sin (Matthew 18:3, Matthew 19:14, Mark 10:13-16, Luke 18:16-17, and Mark 10:16).
The Bible teaches that children don't know the difference between right and wrong and so cannot sin (Deuteronomy 1:39 and Isaiah 7:15-16).
It also teaches that no man is guilty of the sins of another (Ezekiel 18:20, Deuteronomy 24:16, Genesis 18:25, Ezekiel 18:2-4, 20, Ezekiel 18:17-20, 2 Chronicles 25:4, Ezekiel 18:25, 29-30, Ezekiel 18:30, etc.).
Given these other scriptures, it seems evident that King David's statement is more along the lines of general lament (e.g., "why was I ever born") than an actual doctrinal exposition. He explicitly mentions his own sins a few verses before.
There has been some debate over when infant baptism was first practiced. It wasn't explicitly mentioned until ~180 A.D. (possibly Irenaeus' Against Heresies, and/or passages by Origen). The earliest extra-biblical directions for baptism (the Didache, written ~100 A.D.) speak only of adult baptism, since they describe fasting as a prerequisite. Consequently, I think your friend's claim that infant baptism is required is a more recent theological development. I hope this answer helps.